Posted by David FG on September 07, 2004
In Reply to: Penny vs. the other shoe posted by platypus on September 07, 2004
: Apparently, the "penny dropped" means the same as " the other shoe dropped". What shoe, and why does it's dropping lead to a realization ( I threw-in that vulgar "z" to peeve ya'll troubled by the absence of an "s" in math)?
Why do you think that the - z - is vulgar? It is correct, as recognised by the OED in many words. It is derived from the Greek '-izein' (I can't do Greek characters on this keyboard)and the fact that it is used in the US does not make it wrong, or even vulgar: it is quite simply, etymologically more correct.
The fashion for the '-ise' form in the UK is a regrettable mistake.