Posted by Smokey Stover on December 04, 2003
In Reply to: More fool me posted by Smokey Stover on December 04, 2003
: : : I was just wondering if the pronoun used in this phrase should be in the nominative or objective case. Google gives an edge to the objective case, especially in the case of "I" vs. "me", (but mostly because "More Fool Me" was a song by Genesis). Thanks in advance.
: : If it means 'You are more of a fool' or 'More of a fool are you', then according to grammar it should be nominative. However, idiom may prefer the accusative case, eg 'More fool me', as it does in 'It is me.'
: Grammatically we would be better served with More Fool I. But songs have a grammar of their own, often to accommodate rhyme. If we like, we can call "me" an "emphatic" use. Remember the row when President Ike spoke of "Mamie and I" when he should have said "Mamie and me"?
I'm sorry to keep coming back, but I did not see Henry's comment before posting mine. I have no doubt that hordes of people say "It is me," although even bigger hordes say "It's me." But I can't help think of that passage in the New Testament where the disciple asks, "Lord, is it I?" Doesn't anyone read the Bible anymore?