Posted by M Phill on July 25, 2003
In Reply to: Archived explanation posted by R. Berg on July 23, 2003
: : Could someone please settle a lively, and as yet fruitless debate as to the origin of this english phrase. which sort of nut is it a reference to, how is it sweet, and where was it first used and why.....
: : Many thanks, in advance....
: Try this item from the archives:
: (link below)
I'm pretty sure it's an ironic expression... If something is as sweet as a nut it's not all that sweet, nice or good after all.
A bit like after explaining something to someone, if they say it's 'as clear as mud', your explanation probably wasn't that great.