Posted by Masakim on July 15, 2003
In Reply to: Eye for an eye posted by ESC on July 15, 2003
: : We often see or hear this "eye for an eye" phrase used in retorical arguments. It is sometimes referenced to the King James Bible (perhaps Matthew 5:38)which apparently is the result of several translations of the Greek Textus Receptus. Does anyone here have a good feel for what the original Greek literally said which eventually lead to "eye for an eye"? Perhaps it was originally literally "eye for an eye"?
: I bought a book -- "God's Secretaries" -- about how the KJV was created. Unfortunately I'm not far along enough in my reading to help on this question. I did go to http://www.biblegateway.com/ -- Advanced Search - and looked up Matthew 5 in some of the translations. One has a footnote that seems to be saying the Greek wording is the same.
: New Living Translation:
: Matthew 5
: Teaching about Revenge
: 38"You have heard that the law of Moses says, `If an eye is injured, injure the eye of the person who did it. If a tooth gets knocked out, knock out the tooth of the person who did it.'
: 1. 5:38 Greek `An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth.' Exod 21:24; Lev 24:20; Deut 19:21.
196. If a man put out the eye of another man, his eye shall be put out.
200. If a man knock out the teeth of his equal, his teeth shall be knocked out.
--The Code of Hammurabi (Translated by L. W. King)