Posted by Bruce Kahl on July 23, 2000
In Reply to: There are none so blind... posted by Jack on July 23, 2000
: Can anyone shed light on the origin of the phrase, "There are none so blind as those who will not see?" Thanks!!
I could not find one source on this. It sounds Biblical but is not. The closest thing Biblically to it is in Matt 13:13,Jer 5:21 and Isa 6:9-10.
13:13 Therefore I speak to them in parables: because they seeing
see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand
Hear now this, O foolish people, and without understanding; which have eyes, and see not; which have ears, and hear not:
And he said, Go, and tell this people, Hear you indeed, but understand not; and see indeed, but perceive not.
Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed.