Posted by Bob on November 10, 2000
In Reply to: Explanation posted by andy barnard on November 10, 2000
: can you tell me what the phrase "the be all and end all" means, and where it came from?
Macbeth, I believe, somewhere early on in the play. He toys with the idea that killing Duncan could be done, quickly, with no lasting consequences, and no guilt or punishment. He realizes the impossibility of that wish.