Posted by Oxhead on October 20, 2000
In Reply to: Re: For Pete's Sake posted by Antony on October 20, 2000
: : : Why do we say "For Pete's Sake"?
: : : who first said it?
: : We say it because we don't want to say "For God's sake." I don't think anyone knows who said it first. To access previous discussions on the expression, search the Discussion Forum archives under "sake."
: It was first said by an itinerant farm hand from Lincolnshire at 2 PM on 23 September 1497 immediately following his impaling his foot with a pitchfork in the presence of the local priest - there is no written record of the incident.
Refers to St. Peter, I take it? Could be considered mildly blasphemous by some.