Posted by RRC on March 27, 2007
In Reply to: Re: He's in his cups posted by David FG on March 27, 2007
: : The phrase is "he's in his cups/" I think it means he's drunk and may have an Irish connection. I would like to know it's origin.
: It's Biblical, I think. It does indeed mean drunk, but I am unaware of its being particularly Irish.
It's not in KJV, but one reference says it goes back to the 1400's. Perhaps someone has an OED handy?