Posted by ESC on March 15, 2003
In Reply to: Re: "Daddy" posted by R. Berg on March 15, 2003
: : I don't know if this message qualifies for indecency although I hope not. It is a serious question and I hope someone will answer my question.
: : When an american female says "Give it to me, daddy" while seducing a man who is not her father, what does it mean? Why "daddy"? Does it have any contextual meaning like a well known statement from a movie or a novel?
: : Thanks
: : Prakash.
: The expression didn't originate in a movie or a novel, although it occurs in fictional dialogue. It's a traditional way of showing affection among some speakers (not most). I think the wife in "Come Back, Little Sheba" called her husband Daddy. It used to be fairly common for men in a certain social class (approximately lower-middle) in the US to call their wives Mother. I find these pet names offensive myself; they suggest that the person confuses legitimate relationships with incestuous ones.
Hmmm. This one is going to take some study. American couples sometimes call each other "Mommy" and "Daddy" after they have children. It's a parent thing. It just happens. You can't tell your child, "Herman will be home soon." You say, "Daddy will be home soon." That's how it starts.
Daddy and mama as sexual pet-names is a whole other thing apart from the parenthood arena. A man who supports a woman he isn't married to is a "sugardaddy." Then a sexually attractive woman is a "red-hot mama."