Posted by Anon on September 20, 2002
In Reply to: Re: "Wet dream" posted by TheFallen on September 19, 2002
In an e-mail group for Swedish translators, we have come to discuss the phrase
"wet dream". Some of us feel that only men can have a wet dream, others that this
is pure nonsense... Interesting, right?
: : This is the definition from Merriam-Webster Online:
: : "wet dream
: : Function: noun
: : Date: 1851
: : : an erotic dream culminating in orgasm and in the male accompanied by seminal emission"
: : What do =you= say - must a wet dream be "accompanied by seminal emission"? Can both sexes have it? Does the phrase emanate from the involontary "wet dreams" that adolescent boys have?
: Taking this question solely upon its etymological merits, Merriam-Webster Online clearly infers in its definition that a "wet dream" can be had by either sex. Personally speaking, it'd not have occurred to me to use the phrase to refer to an erotic dream had by a female, but then again, one can see that a case could be made for it.
: Perhaps those of a feminine persuasion can shed a more relevant light here?
If you don't know, we ain't telling.